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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids Bases and Salts

July 13, 2020 by Veerendra

In this chapter, students will understand the chemical properties of acids, and bases, how acids and bases react with metals, how metal carbonates, and metal hydrogen carbonates react with acids, how acids and bases react with each other, the reaction of metallic oxides with acids. Students will also learn about what all acids and bases have in common, what happens to acids and bases in water solution, the importance of pH in everyday life, pH of salts.

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science . Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids Bases and Salts. LearnInsta.com provides you the Free PDF download of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science (Chemistry) Chapter 2 – Acids, Bases and Salts solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines. All Chapter 2 – Acids, Bases and Salts Exercise Questions with Solutions to help you to revise complete Syllabus and Score More marks.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 In Text Book Questions

Question 1. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube ? Answer: Take a small volume of all the three liquids in three test tubes. Dip red litmus paper strips separately in all the three. The tube in which red litmus strip turns blue, contains basic solution. Now remove the blue litmus paper and dip it one of the remaining test tubes. If the colour of the blue litmus paper changes to red, the tube contains acidic solution. In case, it remains blue then the tube contains distilled water.

More Resources

• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 10 Science
• HOTS Questions for Class 10 Science
• Value Based Questions in Science for Class 10
• Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 10 Science

Question 2. Why should not curd and sour substances be kept in containers made up of brass or copper ? Answer: Both curd and sour substances contain some acids in them. They react with copper or brass vessels to form certain salts which are of poisonous nature. Therefore, it is not advisable to keep them in these containers.

Question 5. Aqueous solutions of HCl, HNO 3 and H 2 SO 4 etc. show acidic character while those of the compounds like ethyl alcohol (C 2 H 5 OH) and glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 ) fail to do so. Explain. Answer: All the acids that are listed, have replaceable hydrogen atoms which they release in aqueous solution as H + ions. Therefore, they show acidic character. However, both ethyl alcohol (C 2 H 5 OH) and glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 ) do not have replaceable hydrogen atoms. They fail to evolve hydrogen gas and do not show any acidic character.

Question 6. Why does aqueous solution of an acid (HA) conduct electricity ? Answer: Aqueous solution of an acid (HA) releases H+ ions or H 3 O + ions and anions (A – ) in solution. Since ions are the carrier of charge, the aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity.

Question 7. Why does not dry HCl gas change the colour of the dry litmus paper ? (CBSE 2013) Answer: Dry HCl gas fails to release any H + ions which means that it is not acidic. It fails to change the colour of the dry litmus paper which has also no moisture present.

Question 8. While diluting an acid, why is it not recommended that acid should be added to water and not water to the acid ? (CBSE 2011) Answer: Acids particularly the mineral acids like H 2 SO 4 , HNO 3 and HCl etc., have strong affinity for water. The dilution process is highly exothermic in nature. The heat evolved may crack or break the container and may also convert the acid into fog which is likely to pollute the atmosphere. In order to control the heat evolved, it is advisable to add acid drop by drop to water. In case water is added to acid, then the entire acid will get itself involved in the exothermic process. It may not be possible to control the heat evolved.

Question 9. How is concentration of hydronium ions (H 3 O + ) affected when solution of an acid is diluted with water ? Answer: An acid dissociates into hydronium ions (H 3 O + ) and anions when dissolved in water. Upon dilution, the volume of the solution increases and the number of ions per unit volume decreases. Therefore, the concentration of H 3 O + ions per unit volume decreases.

Question 10. How is concentration of hydroxyl (OH – ) ions affected when excess of base is dissolved in solution of sodium hydroxide ? Answer: Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base. It immediately dissociates in solution to give OH – ions and cations. Upon dissolving more of base in the solution, the concentration of OH – ions further increases.

Question 11. You have two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and that of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration ? Which of these is acidic and which one is basic ? Answer: The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of H + ions in solution. Lesser the pH of the solution, more will be the H + ion concentration. The solution A with pH 6 has more H + ion concentration than the solution with pH equal to 8. The solution A is acidic because its pH is less than 7 and the solution B is basic because its pH is more than 7.

Question 12. What effect does concentration of H + (aq) ions have on acidic nature of absolution ? Answer: The acidic nature of a solution is directly related to the concentration of H + ions. As the concentration of H + ions increases, the acidic nature of solution also increases.

Question 13. Do basic solutions also have H + (aq) ions ? If yes, then why are these basic ? Answer: Yes, basic solutions have also H + (aq) ions present in them. Actually, these solutions are prepared in water. Being a weak electrolyte, it dissociates to give H + and OH – ions. However, the number of H + ions is very small as compared to the number of OH –  ions which are released by the base and also by water. Therefore, the solutions as a whole are of basic nature.

Question 14. Under what soil conditions, do you think a farmer would spread or treat the soil of his fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate) ? Answer: A soil usually becomes acidic when there is either a high peat content, iron minerals or there is some rotting vegetable. In order to reduce the acidic strength, ‘liming of soil’ is usually done. For this, any of the substances that have been mentioned are added to the soil since these are of basic nature.

Question 16. Name the sodium compound used for softening hard water. Answer: Washing soda or sodium carbonate. It is chemically sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O). What will happen if the solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated ?

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 NCERT End Exercise

Question 1. A solution turns red litmus blue. Its pH is likely to be (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d)  10. Answer: The solution is basic. Its pH is likely to be 10. Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.

Question 2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky. The solution contains (a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl. Answer: The crushed egg-shells consist of layer of calcium carbonate which reacts with dilute HCl to evolve CO 2 (g). The gas turns lime water milky. Therefore (b) is the correct choice.

Question 3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the volume of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise will be (a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL. Answer: 10 mL of NaOH will require HCl = 8 mL and 20 mL of NaOH will require HCl=16 mL. Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.

Question 4. Which of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion ? (a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic. Answer: Antacid is used for treating indigestion. The correct answer is (c).

Question 7. Why does not distilled water conduct electricity whereas rain water does ? Answer: Pure water (or distilled water) is a very weak electrolyte and does not dissociate into ions. Therefore, it does not conduct electricity. However, rain water contains some dissolved acids like carbonic acid (H 2 CO 3 ) and sulphurous acid (H 2 SO 3 ). Actually air contains traces of both CO 2 and SO 2 gases which dissolve in rain water to produce corresponding acids. As a result, water becomes acidulated and gets ionised easily. Therefore, rain water conducts electricity.

Question 8. Why does not an acid show any acidic behaviour in the absence of water ? Answer: An acid gets ionized only in aqueous solution i.e. in the presence of water. In other words, an acid releases H+ ions or shows acidic behaviour only in the presence of water.

Question 9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator show pH as 4, 2, 12, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is : (a) neutral (b) strongly alkaline (c) strongly acidic (d) weakly alkaline (e) weakly acidic (f) Arrange the pH in increasing order of H + ion concentration. Answer: (a) Neutral : D with pH = 7 (b) Strongly alkaline : C with pH = 12 (c) Strongly acidic : B with pH =2 (d) Weakly alkaline : E with pH = 9 (e) Weakly acidic : A with pH = 4 (f) Increasing order of H+ ions concentration :C<E<D<A<B

Question 11. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd ? Explain your answer. (CBSE 2011) Answer: When milk changes into curd, the pH decreases. Actually, lactose (carbohydrate) present in milk gets converted into lactic acid. As more of acid is formed, pH of the medium decreases.

Question 12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. (a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline ? (b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd ? (CBSE 2011) Answer: (a) We know that fesh milk is slightly acidic due to presence of lactic acid and its pH is 6. Upon standing, its pH slowly decreases and it becomes sour since more of acid to released. The purpose of adding baking soda or sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO 3 ) is to make medium slighly alkaline. The base released will neutralise the effect of lactic acid present in milk. This will check the milk from getting sour. (b) When milk sets as curd, it becomes more acidic and pH decreases. In the alkaline medium, it takes longer time to achieve acidic medium back so that milk may set as curd.

Question 15. Both NaCl and KNO 3 are neutral in nature. They neither change blue litmus red nor red litmus blue. That is why the reaction is called neutralisation reaction. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda. (CBSE 2011) Answer: Uses of washing soda:

• In the manufacture of glass, soap, paper and chemicals like caustic soda (NaOH) and borax (Na 2 B 4 O 7 ) etc.
• As a cleansing agent for domestic purposes.

Uses of baking soda:

• In baking powder used for preparing cakes.
• In antacids to reduce acidity in the stomach.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Get 100 percent accurate NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 (Acids, Bases and Salts) explained by expert Science teachers. We provide step by step solutions for the questions given in Class 10 Science textbook as per CBSE Board guidelines from the latest NCERT book for Class 10 Science. The topics and sub-topics in  Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

• 2.1 UNDERSTANDING THE CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF ACIDS AND BASES
• 2.1.1 Acids and Bases in the Laboratory
• 2.1.2 How do Acids and Bases React with Metals?
• 2.1.3 How do Metal Carbonates and Metal Hydrogen carbonates React with Acids?
• 2.1.4 How do Acids and Bases React with each other?
• 2.1.5 Reaction of Metallic Oxides with Acids
• 2.1.6 Reaction of a Non-metallic Oxide with Base
• 2.2 WHAT DO ALL ACIDS AND ALL BASES HAVE IN COMMON?
• 2.2.1 What Happens to an Acid or a Base in a Water Solution?
• 2.3 HOW STRONG ARE ACID OR BASE SOLUTIONS?
• 2.3.1 Importance of pH in Everyday Life
• 2.4 MORE ABOUT SALTS
• 2.4.1 Family of Salts
• 2.4.2 pH of Salts
• 2.4.3 Chemicals from Common Salt
• 2.4.4 Are the Crystals of Salts really Dry?.

We cover all exercises in the chapter given below:- 

• EXERCISE 2.1 – 1 Question with Solutions
• EXERCISE 2.2 – 3 Questions with Solutions
• EXERCISE 2.3 – 6 Questions with Solutions
• EXERCISE 2.4 – 4 Questions with Solutions
• EXERCISE 2.5 – 5 Questions with Solutions
• EXERCISE 2.6 – 15 Questions with Solutions.

Download the free PDF of Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts or save the solution images and take the print out to keep it handy for your exam preparation.

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 are helpful to complete your science homework.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases And Salts

The Class 10 NCERT Solutions for Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases And Salts includes all the intext and exercise questions. Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases And Salts NCERT questions and answers help students to clear their doubts and to obtain good marks in Class 10 board exam. All the solutions provided in this article are strictly based on the CBSE syllabus and curriculum.

Class 10 Science Chapter 2 NCERT Questions and Answers

Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases And Salts NCERT Questions and Answers are prepared by experts with a detailed explanation that will help students complete their assignments & homework. Having a good grasp over CBSE NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science will further help the students in their preparation for board exams and other competitive exams such as NTSE, Olympiad, etc.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Intext Questions

Intext Questions (Page No. 18)

Question 1: You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?

Answer: We can identify the content in each of the test tubes using red litmus paper. This can be done by noticing the colour change of the red litmus paper.

• If the red litmus paper changes to blue colour the solution is a basic solution.
• If the red litmus paper experiences no change in acidic solution.
• If the red litmus paper changes to purple colour the solution is distilled water.

Intext Questions (Page No. 22)

Question 1: Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?

Answer: Curd and sour substances contain acids. These acids can react with brass and copper vessels to form toxic compounds. This makes the substances unfit for human consumption. Hence, they are not kept in brass and copper vessels.

Question 2: Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?

Answer: Hydrogen gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal.

 Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)

The equation given above illustrates how zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid resulting in the liberation of hydrogen gas and the formation of the salt zinc chloride.

A burning match stick, when brought near the mouth of the test tube where H 2 gas is being released makes a pop sound. This confirms the presence of hydrogen gas.

Question 3: Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.

Answer: Metal compound A is Calcium carbonate (CaCO 3 ). When A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid it produces effervescence. The chemical equation is given as:

CaCO 3 (s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl 2 (aq) + CO 2 (g) + H 2 O (l)

The gas evolved is CO 2 . CO 2 extinguishes a burning candle.

Intext Questions (Page No. 25)

Question 1: Why do HCl, HNO 3 , etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?

Answer: When HCl or HNO 3 are mixed with water, they dissolve in water to form hydrogen ions (H + ) or Hydronium ions (H 3 O + ) which show their acidic character.

Although aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol contain hydrogen, these cannot dissociate in water to form hydrogen ions. Hence, they do not show acidic character.

Question 2: Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?

Answer: An acid dissolves in water and dissociates to form H + or H 3 O + ions. Electricity is conducted through these moving ions.

Question 3: Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?

Answer: Colour of the litmus paper is changed by the hydrogen ions. Dry HCl gas does not contain H + ions. It is only in the aqueous solution that an acid dissociates to give ions. Since in this case, neither HCl is in the aqueous form nor the litmus paper is wet, therefore, the colour of the litmus paper does not change.

Question 4: While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?

Answer: While diluting an acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid because if water is added to concentrated acid, it release huge amount of heat which may result in explosion and can cause acid burns o face, clothes and body parts. Hence it is safe to add acid to water but not water to acid.

  Question 5: How is the concentration of hydronium ions H 3 O + affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?

Answer: When the solution of acid is diluted then the concentration of hydronium ion H 3 O + per unit volume decreases. On adding water, the H + ions of the acid and hydroxyl ions of water react to form water molecules and the concentration of hydronium ions decreases. 

Question 6: How is the concentration of hydroxide ions OH — affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?

Answer: When the base is mixed with sodium hydroxide solution there is an increase in the number of hydroxide ions whereas the volume remains almost the same. This leads to an increase in the concentration of OH — ions per unit volume.

Intext Questions (Page No. 33)

Question 1: You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?

Answer: A pH value of less than 7 indicates an acidic solution, while greater than 7 indicates a basic solution. Therefore, the solution with pH = 6 is acidic and has more hydrogen ion concentration than the solution of pH = 8 which is basic.

Question 2 : What effect does the concentration of H + (aq)ions have on the nature of the solution?

Answer: Concentration of H + (aq) can have a varied effect on the nature of the solution. With an increase in H + ion concentration, the solution becomes more acidic, while a decrease of H + ion causes an increase in the basicity of the solution.

Question 3: Do basic solutions also have H + (aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?

Answer: Yes, basic solutions also have H + ions, but they are basic in nature due to a greater number of OH – ions than the H + ions.

Question 4: Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?

Answer: If the soil is acidic in nature (PH below 7) then such field should be treated with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate).

Intext Questions (Page No. 34-35)

Question 1: What is the common name of the compound CaOCl 2 ?

Answer: CaOCl 2 (chemical name-calcium oxychloride) is commonly called bleaching powder.

Question 2: Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.

Answer: Bleaching powder is prepared by treating Calcium hydroxide CaOH 2 with chlorine. The chemical equation for the reaction is:

Ca(OH) 2 + Cl 2 → CaOCl 2 + H 2 O

Question 3: Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.

Answer: Sodium carbonate is commonly used for softening hard water.

Question 4: What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.

Answer: When sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO 3 ) is heated, sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide gas are obtained. The chemical equation for the reaction is

Question 5: Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Exercise Questions

Question 1: A solution turns red litmus blue; its pH is likely to be: (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10

Answer: (d) 10

A solution which turns the colour of red litmus to blue must be basic in nature. A basic solution has a pH value of greater than 7. The only option with pH greater than 7 is 10 which will be the correct answer.

Question 2: A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains: (a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl

Answer : (b) HCl

Egg shells are made up of calcium carbonate, which on reaction with HCl liberates CO 2 gas. When CO 2 reacts with lime water (Ca (OH) 2 ), it forms calcium carbonate which gives the  solution a milky appearance.

CaCO 3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H 2 O + CO 2

Ca(OH) 2 + CO 2 → CaCO 3 + H 2 O

Question 3: 10 ml of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralized by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 ml of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralize it will be: (a) 4 ml (b) 8 ml (c) 12 ml (d) 16 ml

Answer: (d) 16 ml

The amount of Hydroxide ions and hydrogen ions are directly proportional to the volume of their respective solutions. Hence, the problem can be solved by a unitary method.

Since 10 ml NaOH reacts with = 8 ml HCl

  16 ml of HCl solution will be required to completely neutralize 20 ml of NaOH solution.

Question 4: Which of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion? (a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic

Answer: (c) Antacid

An antacid is used for the treatment of indigestion which is caused due to excessive acidity in the stomach. The antacid chemical is basic in nature and thus, it neutralizes the acidity in the stomach. 

Question 5: Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking place when (a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules. (b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon. (c) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder. (d) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.

Answer: (a) Sulphuric acid + Zinc → Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen

H 2 SO 4 (aq) + ZnS(s) → ZnSO 4 (aq) + H 2 (g)

(b) Hydrochloric acid + Magnesium → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen

2HCl (aq) + MgS(s) → MgCl 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)

(c) Sulphuric acid + Aluminium → Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen

3H 2 SO 4 (aq) + 2Al(s) → Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 (aq) + 3H 2 (g)

(d) Hydrochloric acid + Iron Ferrous chloride + Hydrogen

6HCl (aq) + 2Fe(s) → 2FeCl 2 (aq) + 3H 2 (g)

Question 6: Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorized as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.

Answer: Two nails are fitted on a cork and are kept in a 100 ml beaker. The nails are then connected to the two terminals of a 6-volt battery through a bulb and a switch. Some dilute HCl is poured into the beaker and the current is switched on. The same experiment is then performed with a glucose solution and an alcohol solution.

Observations:   It will be observed that the bulb glows in the HCl solution and does not glow in the glucose or alcohol solution.

Result:   HCl dissociates into H + and Cl – ions. These ions conduct electricity in the solution resulting in the glowing of the bulb. On the other hand, neither the glucose solution nor the alcohol solution dissociates into ions. Therefore, these two solutions do not conduct electricity.

Conclusion:  From this activity, it can be concluded that all acids generate hydrogen ions but not all compounds containing hydrogen are acids. That is why, though alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen, they are not categorized as acids.

Question 7: Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does?

Answer: Distilled water is a pure form of water and its pH is 7 and is devoid of any ionic species. Therefore, it does not conduct electricity. Rainwater, being an impure form of water, contains CO 2 , SO 2 , NO. These oxide gases react with water and get chemically converted into acids which are responsible for the release of ions that conduct electricity-contains many ionic species(acids) whose pH is less than 7 and therefore it conducts electricity

Question 8: Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?

Answer: The acidic behaviour from acids is because of the presence of hydrogen ions. Hydrogen ions can only be produced in the presence of water and therefore water is definitely needed if acids are to show their acidic behaviour.

Question 9: Five solutions A, B, C, D , and E , when tested with universal indicator, showed pH as 4, 1,11,7 and 9, respectively. Which solution is (a) neutral? (b) Strongly alkaline? (c) Strongly acidic? (d) Weakly acidic? (e) Weakly alkaline? Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration.

Answer: At 25 o C pH of neutral solutions = 7

As the pH falls below 7, it denotes acidic character with a pH of 1 being highly acidic. When the pH goes above 7, it implies that the solution is basic with 14 being highly basic.

Neutral → Solution D with pH 7

Strongly→ alkaline Solution C with pH 11

Strongly acidic → Solution B with pH 1

Weakly acidic → Solution A with pH 4

Weakly alkaline→ Solution E with pH 9

The pH can be arranged in the increasing order of the concentration of hydrogen ions as: 11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1

Question 10: Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH 3 COOH) is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?

Answer: The fizzing will occur strongly in test tube A, in which hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added. This is because HCl is a stronger acid than CH 3 COOH and therefore produces hydrogen gas at a quicker rate due to which fizzing occurs more vigorously in test tube A.

Mg + 2HCl → MgCl 2 + H 2 ↑ (faster)

Mg + 2CH 3 COOH → Mg(CH 3 COO) 2 + H 2 ( slower)

Question 11: Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.

Answer: The pH of milk is 6. As it gets converted to curd (pH between 4.5 to 5.5) the pH will reduce because curd has lactic acid which is more acidic in nature. Thus, the pH drops below 6 when milk gets converted to curd.

  Question 12: A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. (a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline? (b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?

Answer: (a)  He shifted the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline to prevent milk from getting sour due to production of lactic acid.

(b)  This milk takes long time to set into curd because the lactic acid produced here first neutralises the pH then the pH is reduced to turn milk to curd.

Question 13: Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?

Answer: Plaster of Paris (POP) should be stored in a moisture-proof container because Plaster of Paris, a powdery mass, absorbs water (moisture) to form a hard solid known as gypsum.

Question 14: What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples.

Answer: A reaction in which an acid and a base react with each other to give a salt and water is termed as a neutralization reaction. In this reaction, energy is evolved in the form of heat and thus, such reactions are usually exothermic by nature.

(ii) During indigestion (caused due to the production of excess of hydrochloric acid in the stomach), we administer an antacid (generally milk of magnesia, MgOH 2 which is basic in nature). The antacid neutralizes the excess acid and thus gives relief from indigestion.

Mg(OH) 2 + 2HCl → MgCl 2 + 2H 2 O

Question 15: Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.

Answer: Two important uses of washing soda are as follows: (i) It is used in glass, soap, and paper industries. (ii) It is used to remove the permanent hardness of the water.

Two important uses of baking soda are as follows:

(i) It is used in baking industries. Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and a mild acid known as tartaric acid. When it is heated or mixed with water, it releases CO 2 that makes bread or cake fluffy.

(ii) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Topics covered under Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases And Salts

Below we have listed the topics discussed in NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2. The list gives you a quick look at the different topics and subtopics of this chapter.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 – A Brief Discussion

Chapter Overview: In this chapter, you will learn about the chemical properties Acids, Bases and Salts. This chapter mainly describes the chemical nature of acids, bases and salts, their reaction with metals, non-metals and with each other. The chapter covers topics like the importance of pH in everyday life, the pH range of acidic, basic and neutral solution and the wide applications of pH scale. Further, you will learn the chemical formulae, chemical reactions of various important salts and their preparation which are used in day to day life such as washing and baking soda, bleaching powder, and plaster of Paris. This chapter has many practical experiments that help students to grasp the concepts more easily.

Answers to Assignment Chemical Reactions and Equations – 2nd| Class 10th

Answers to assignment Chemical Reactions and Equations

This Post involves the Answers to the assignment Chemical Reactions and Equations i.e assignment No. 2 in order to get the assignment click at the link given at end of the post.

Ans 16. Magnesium ribbon is cleaned before burning to remove the protective layer of basic magnesium carbonate from the surface of the magnesium ribbon.

Ans 17.   Balance chemical reaction with state symbols are as follows-

BaCl 2 (aq) + Na 2 SO 4 (aq)  →  BaSO 4  (s) + 2NaCl (aq)

NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq)   → NaCl (aq) + H 2 O   

Ans 18. (i). The substance whose solution is water is used for whitewashing is calcium oxide. Its formula is CaO.

    (ii). CaO (s) + H 2 O   →  Ca(OH) 2  (s)

Ans 19.   The reaction involved is: Cu (s)  +  2 AgNO 3  (aq) →  Cu(NO 3 ) 2   (aq)  +  2 Ag (s)

Ans 20. A chemical reaction in which an insoluble substance (precipitate) is formed is called a precipitation reaction. For example AgNO 3  + NaCl  →  AgCl + NaNO 3

Ans 21. The brown coloured element ‘X‘ is copper. On heating in air, it forms copper oxide, which is black in colour. 2CuS + O 2   →  2CuO

Ans 22. We apply paint on iron articles to prevent rusting. Iron articles do not come in contact of atmospheric oxygen and moisture and thus the rusting is prevented.

Ans 23. Oil and fat-containing items get rancid due to oxidation with atmospheric oxygen. To prevent rancidity food items are flushed with nitrogen. Nitrogen does not react with the oil and fat-containing items.

Ans 24.  BaCl 2  (aq)   +   Na 2 SO 4   (aq)   →    BaSO 4  (s)  +   2 NaCl (aq)

                                                                       Barium Sulphate    

                                                                       White Precipitate

    NaOH (aq)   +   HCl (aq)   →   NaCl (aq)   +   H 2 O (l)

Ans 25. (a) 2 HNO 3   +  Ca(OH) 2    →   Ca(NO 3 ) 2    +   2 H 2 O

  (b) 2 NaOH  +   H 2 SO 4     →    Na 2 SO 4     +   2 H 2 O

  (c)  NaCl   +   AgNO 3       →    AgCl   +   NaNO 3

  (d)  BaCl 2    +   H 2 SO 4      →   BaSO 4    +   2 HCl

To get Assignment Click the Link Given Below

2nd -Assignment Chemical Reactions and Equations | Class 10th

Ans 26. The colour of the magnesium is silvery-white. And after Burning in the presence of Oxygen the colour changes to white (MgO → Magnesium oxide).

Ans 27. The important reasons are:

• Because, If the Concentration of the Acid will be higher then it will be a More Exothermic Reaction and if the activity will not be completed in the presence of the right Mentor then it can be very harmful.
• To prevent the danger. Because you all know how Acids are harmful If the concentration will be higher it can Even burn the skin. And to prevent Danger, we use highly dilute Acid.

Ans 28. SO 2 and SO 3 are colourless gases that are colourless and pungent smell. These gases are harmful to health.

Ans 29. As you know now, AgCl is a photolytic Decomposing material that’s why when we kept AgCl in a black colour bottle to protect it from Sunlight.

Ans 30. 2 AgBr(s) + Sunlight → 2 Ag(s) + Br 2 (g)

Ans 31. 2 AgBr(s)  +  Sunlight  →  2 Ag(s) + Br 2 (g), This reaction is also Similar to the Above one(2 AgCl  → 2 Ag + Cl 2 ). And this Reaction is used for the Black and white Photography.

Ans 32. In this reaction, the Iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of copper sulphate solution fade Because Iron displaces Cu (Copper) from its Position (CuSO 4 ) Copper Sulphate. Because Iron is more reactive than Copper and it easily displaces Cu (Copper) from Copper Sulphate (CuSO 4 ).

And that’s why the colour of CuSO 4 solution changes from Blue colour to fade and finally the solution of Copper sulphate is converted into Iron Sulphate (FeSO 4 ).

Fe (s) + CuSO 4 (aq) → FeSO 4 (aq) + Cu (s)

Ans 33. NH4Cl, NH4NO3, Cl2, HCl(dil), Fe, Pb(NO3)2, MnO2, AgNO3, NaNO3, NaNO2, CaCO3, Ca(OH)2, H2SO4, HNO3, CuSO4, CaSO4.

Ans 34. Strong, Weak

Ans 35. (ii) Presence of catalyst

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An element X (atomic number = 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number = 20) to form a divalent halide.

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• Class 10 Maths
• Chapter 2: Polynomials

Important Questions Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials

Important questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials are provided here as per the NCERT book. These questions are provided with answers that will help the students prepare and score well in the CBSE Class 10 Maths exam. The questions here cover the latest syllabus as prescribed by the board. Also, they are based on the latest exam pattern. Students can practice the important questions for all the chapters of 10th standard Maths subject and prepare well for the board exam 2022-2023. Along with the important questions, students will also find detailed solutions. In case they get stuck while solving the questions, then they can refer to the solutions.

We have also provided some additional important questions from the examination point of view for Chapter 2 Polynomials of Class 10 Maths so that students can revise the chapter by solving these problems instantly. This chapter deals with expressions carrying unknown variables with different degrees. The solutions of these expressions are termed zeros of the polynomial . The polynomial with degree 1 is the linear polynomial, with degree 2 is a quadratic polynomial, with degree 3 is a cubic polynomial.

Students can also get access to Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials MCQs here.

Also Check:

• Important 2 Marks Questions for CBSE 10th Maths
• Important 3 Marks Questions for CBSE 10th Maths
• Important 4 Marks Questions for CBSE 10th Maths

Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Important Questions With Solutions

A few important Class 10 polynomials questions are provided below with solutions. These questions include both short and long answer questions to let the students get acquainted with the in-depth concepts.

Q.1: Find the value of “p” from the polynomial x 2 + 3x + p, if one of the zeroes of the polynomial is 2.

As 2 is the zero of the polynomial.

We know that if α is a zero of the polynomial p(x), then p(α) = 0

Substituting x = 2 in x 2 + 3x + p,

⇒ 2 2 + 3(2) + p = 0

⇒ 4 + 6 + p = 0

⇒ 10 + p = 0

Q.2: Does the polynomial a 4 + 4a 2 + 5 have real zeroes?

In the aforementioned polynomial, let a 2 = x.

Now, the polynomial becomes,

x 2 + 4x + 5

Comparing with ax 2 + bx + c,

Here, b 2 – 4ac = 4 2  – 4(1)(5) = 16 – 20 = -4

So, D = b 2 – 4ac < 0

As the discriminant (D) is negative, the given polynomial does not have real roots or zeroes.

Q.3: Compute the zeroes of the polynomial 4x 2 – 4x – 8. Also, establish a relationship between the zeroes and coefficients.

Let the given polynomial be p(x) = 4x 2 – 4x – 8

To find the zeroes, take p(x) = 0

Now, factorise the equation 4x 2 – 4x – 8 = 0

4x 2 – 4x – 8 = 0

4(x 2 – x – 2) = 0

x 2 – x – 2 = 0

x 2 – 2x + x – 2 = 0

x(x – 2) + 1(x – 2) = 0

(x – 2)(x + 1) = 0

x = 2, x = -1

So, the roots of 4x 2 – 4x – 8 are -1 and 2.

Relation between the sum of zeroes and coefficients:

-1 + 2 = 1 = -(-4)/4 i.e. (- coefficient of x/ coefficient of x 2 )

Relation between the product of zeroes and coefficients:

(-1) × 2 = -2 =  -8/4 i.e (constant/coefficient of x 2 )

Q.4: Find the quadratic polynomial if its zeroes are 0, √5.

A quadratic polynomial can be written using the sum and product of its zeroes as:

x 2  – (α + β)x + αβ

Where α and β are the roots of the polynomial.

Here, α = 0 and β = √5

So, the polynomial will be:

x 2  – (0 + √5)x + 0(√5)

= x 2  – √5x

Q.5: Find the value of “x” in the polynomial 2a 2 + 2xa + 5a + 10 if (a + x) is one of its factors.

Let f(a) = 2a 2 + 2xa + 5a + 10

Since, (a + x) is a factor of 2a 2 + 2xa + 5a + 10, f(-x) = 0

So, f(-x) = 2x 2 – 2x 2  – 5x + 10 = 0

-5x + 10 = 0

Therefore, x = 2

Q.6: How many zeros does the polynomial (x – 3) 2 – 4 have? Also, find its zeroes.

Given polynomial is (x – 3) 2 – 4

Now, expand this expression.

=> x 2 + 9 – 6x – 4

= x 2 – 6x + 5

As the polynomial has a degree of 2, the number of zeroes will be 2.

Now, solve x 2 – 6x + 5 = 0 to get the roots.

So, x 2 – x – 5x + 5 = 0

=> x(x – 1) -5(x – 1) = 0

=> (x – 1)(x – 5) = 0

x = 1, x = 5

So, the roots are 1 and 5.

Q.7: α and β are zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x 2 – 6x + y. Find the value of ‘y’ if 3α + 2β = 20.

Let, f(x) = x² – 6x + y

From the given,

3α + 2β = 20———————(i)

α + β = 6———————(ii)

αβ = y———————(iii)

Multiply equation (ii) by 2. Then, subtract the whole equation from equation (i),

=> α = 20 – 12 = 8

Now, substitute this value in equation (ii),

=> β = 6 – 8 = -2

Substitute the values of α and β in equation (iii) to get the value of y, such as;

y = αβ = (8)(-2) = -16

Q.8:  If the zeroes of the polynomial  x 3  – 3x 2  + x + 1 are a – b, a, a + b,  then find the value of a and b.

Let the given polynomial be:

p(x) = x 3  – 3x 2  + x + 1

The zeroes of the p(x) are a – b, a, and a + b.

Now, compare the given polynomial equation with general expression.

px 3  + qx 2 + rx + s = x 3  – 3x 2 + x + 1

Here, p = 1, q = -3, r = 1 and s = 1

For sum of zeroes:

Sum of zeroes will be = a – b + a + a + b

Substitute the values q and p.

-(-3)/1 = 3a

So, the zeroes are 1 – b, 1, 1 + b.

For the product of zeroes:

Product of zeroes = 1(1 – b)(1 + b)

-s/p = 1 – 𝑏 2

=> -1/1 = 1 – 𝑏 2

Or, 𝑏 2 = 1 + 1 =2

Thus, 1 – √2, 1, 1 + √2 are the zeroes of equation 𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1.

Q.9: Find a quadratic polynomial each with the given numbers as the sum and product of its zeroes, respectively.

(i) 1/4, -1

(i) From the formulas of sum and product of zeroes, we know, Sum of zeroes = α + β Product of zeroes = αβ

Sum of zeroes = 1/4 Product of zeroes = -1

Therefore, if α and β are zeroes of any quadratic polynomial, then the polynomial can be written as:- x 2 – (α + β)x + αβ

= x 2 – (1/4)x + (-1)

= 4x 2 – x – 4

Thus, 4x 2 – x – 4 is the required quadratic polynomial.

(ii) Given, Sum of zeroes = 1 = α + β Product of zeroes = 1 = αβ

Therefore, if α and β are zeroes of any quadratic polynomial, then the polynomial can be written as:-

x 2 – (α + β)x + αβ

= x 2 – x + 1

Thus, x 2 – x + 1 is the quadratic polynomial.

(iii) Given, Sum of zeroes, α + β = 4 Product of zeroes, αβ = 1

= x 2 – 4x + 1

Thus, x 2 – 4x +1 is the quadratic polynomial.

Q.10: Obtain all other zeroes of 3x 4  + 6x 3  – 2x 2  – 10x – 5, if two of its zeroes are √( 5/3) and- √( 5/3).

Solution: Since this is a polynomial of degree 4, hence there will be a total of 4 roots.

√( 5/3) and- √( 5/3) are zeroes of polynomial f(x). ∴ [x- √( 5/3)] [x+ √( 5/3)] = x 2 -(5/3)

Therefore, 3x 2  + 6x + 3 = 3x(x + 1) +3 (x + 1) = (3x + 3)(x + 1) = 3(x + 1)(x + 1) = 3(x + 1)(x + 1) Hence, x + 1 = 0 i.e. x = – 1 , – 1 is a zero of p(x). So, its zeroes are given by: x = −1 and x = −1. Therefore, all four zeroes of the given polynomial are: √( 5/3) and- √( 5/3), −1 and −1.

Q.11: Find a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are reciprocals of the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = ax 2  + bx + c, a ≠ 0, c ≠ 0.

Let α and β be the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = ax 2  + bx + c.

So, α + β = -b/a

According to the given, 1/α and 1/β are the zeroes of the required quadratic polynomial.

Now, the sum of zeroes = (1/α) + (1/β) 

= (α + β)/αβ

= (-b/a)/ (c/a)

Product of two zeroes = (1/α) (1/β)

The required quadratic polynomial = k[x 2  – (sum of zeroes)x + (product of zeroes)]

= k[x 2  – (-b/c)x + (a/c)]

= k[x 2  + (b/c) + (a/c)]

Q.12: Divide the polynomial f(x) = 3x 2  – x 3  – 3x + 5 by the polynomial g(x) = x – 1 – x 2  and verify the division algorithm.

f(x) = 3x 2  – x 3  – 3x + 5

g(x) = x – 1 – x 2

Dividing f(x) = 3x 2  – x 3  – 3x + 5 by g(x) = x – 1 – x 2

Quotient = q(x) = x – 2

Remainder = r(x) = 3

By division algorithm of polynomials,

Dividend = (Quotient × Divisor) + Remainder

[q(x) × g(x)] + r(x) = (x – 2)(x – 1 – x 2 ) + 3

= x 2  – x – x 3  – 2x + 2 + 2x 2  + 3

= 3x 2  – x 3  – 3x + 5

Hence, the division algorithm is verified.

Q.13: For what value of k, is the polynomial f(x) = 3x 4  – 9x 3  + x 2  + 15x + k completely divisible by 3x 2  – 5?

f(x) = 3x 4  – 9x 3  + x 2  + 15x + k

g(x) = 3x 2  – 5

Dividing f(x) by g(x),

Given that f(x) is completely divisible by 3x 2  – 5.

So, the remainder = 0

Q.14: If 4 is a zero of the cubic polynomial x 3  – 3x 2  – 10x + 24, find its other two zeroes.

Given cubic polynomial  is p(x) = x 3  – 3x 2  – 10x + 24

4 is a zero of p(x).

So, (x – 4) is the factor of p(x).

Let us divide the given polynomial by (x – 4).

Here, the quotient = x 2  + x – 6

= x 2  + 3x – 2x – 6

= x(x + 3) – 2(x + 3)

= (x – 2)(x + 3)

Therefore, the other two zeroes of the given cubic polynomial are 2 and -3.

Practice Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials

• Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 7y 2  – (11/3)y – (2/3) and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
• Find all zeroes of the polynomial (2x 4  – 9x 3  + 5x 2  + 3x – 1) if two of its zeroes are (2 + √3) and (2 – √3).
• If the remainder on division of x 3  + 2x 2  + kx +3 by x – 3 is 21, find the quotient and the value of k. Hence, find the zeroes of the cubic polynomial x 3  + 2x 2  + kx – 18.
• For which values of a and b, are the zeroes of q(x) = x 3  + 2x 2  + a also the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x 5  – x 4  – 4x 3  + 3x 2  + 3x + b? Which zeroes of p(x) are not the zeroes of q(x)?
• Verify that 3, –1, -1/3 are the zeroes of the cubic polynomial p(x) = 3x 3  – 5x 2  – 11x – 3, and then verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
• Find a quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are √2 and -3/2, respectively. Also find its zeroes.

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nice and helpful questions

my doubt is of relationship between zeros ans coffieients

Please visit: https://byjus.com/maths/relation-between-zeros-and-coefficients/

relationship between zeroes and coefficients means that you have to show that alpha + beta = -b/a and alpha x beta = c/a.

good questions

It was really useful

Please tell me some tough questions??? These were too easy.

Ya! It is useful , good questions .

this all are so easy and nice thanks to byju’s

happy with these questions .. will be more happy if got hard questions and i need some difficult questions on relationship between zeroes and coefficient

it is very helpfull questions my sons douts are all cleared . thank u

very helpful thank’s

These questions were useful.

I need some hard question from this chapter

Thank you for the questions, these really helped me clear my doubts.

Very useful questions for revision

Very easy but good question thanks byjus

Veryy amazing I just love it I hope byjus go through the sky 😃😃😃😃😃😃

It’s very useful before examination for us like 10 std so thank you for posting questions like this every week

It is very very helpful for students .

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NCERT Solutions for Class 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

September 30, 2019 by phani

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Page 35 Q1: Fill in the blanks using the correct option given in the bracket:

(i) Employment in the service sector _________ increased to the same extent as production. (has / has not) (ii) Workers in the _________ sector do not produce goods. (tertiary / agricultural) (iii) Most of the workers in the _________ sector enjoy job security. (organised / unorganised) (iv) A _________ proportion of labourers in India are working in the unorganised sector. (large / small) (v) Cotton is a _________ product and cloth is a _________ product. (natural / manufactured) (vi) The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are _________. (independent / interdependent)

Answer: (i) Employment in the service sector has not increased to the same extent as production. (ii) Workers in the tertiary sector do not produce goods. (iii) Most of the workers in the organised sector enjoy job security. (iv) A large proportion of labourers in India are working in the unorganised sector. (v) Cotton is a natural product and cloth is a manufactured product. (vi) The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are interdependent .

Q2: Choose the most appropriate answer. (a) The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of: (i) employment conditions (ii) the nature of economic activity (iii) ownership of enterprises (iv) number of workers employed in the enterprise

(b) Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in ______________ sector. (i) primary (ii) secondary (iii) tertiary (iv) information technology

(c) GDP is the total value of _____________ produced during a particular year. (i) all goods and services (ii) all final goods and services (iii) all intermediate goods and services (iv) all intermediate and final goods and services

(d) In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003 is _________ (i) between 20 per cent to 30 per cent (ii) between 30 per cent to 40 per cent (iii) between 50 per cent to 60 per cent (iv) 70 per cent

Answer: (a) (iii) (b) (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii)

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

NCERT Solutions

• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Q4: Find the odd one out and say why. Answer:

• Tourist guide, dhobi, tailor, potter.
• Teacher, doctor, vegetable vendor, lawyer.
• Postman, cobbler, soldier, police constable.
• MTNL, Indian Railways, Air India, Sahara Airlines, All India Radio.
• Potter, because only the potter relates to the secondary sector.
• Vegetable vendor, since only this directly helps in the production of goods.
• Cobbler because the only cobbler falls in the private sector.
• Sahara Airlines, as this is only a private sector company in the group.

Q6: Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, tertiary, and secondary is useful? Explain how. Answer: The classification of economic activities into primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors is helpful as mentioned below :

• It provides information on how and where the people of a country are employed. For example in India in 2000, the share of the primary sector in employment was about 60 percent e., more than other sectors.
• It also helps in ascertaining as to which sector of economic activity contributes more or less to the country’s GDP and per capita income.
• If the tertiary sector is developing much faster than the primary sector, then it implies that agriculture is depleting and the government must take measures to rectify this.
• The knowledge that the agricultural profession is becoming unpopular or regressive can only come if we know which sector it belongs to.
• It provides us information about employment conditions in different sectors. For example in India, the primary sector faces the problem of disguised unemployment. In this sector, more people are employed and even if some are removed, production will not be affected.
• It provides us the information about progress in different sectors. For example, the importance of the tertiary sector has increased due to various factors need for basic services and the coming of IT services. In view of the above factors, it is necessary to classify economic activities into three sectors for smooth economic administration and development.

Q7: For each of the following sectors that we came across in this chapter why should one focus on employment and GDP? Could there be other issues which should be examined? Discuss. Answer: (1) For each of the sectors we focus on employment and GDP due to the reasons mentioned below :

• To know the number of people employed in that sector. For example in 2000, the share of the primary sector in employment was more than secondary and tertiary sectors.
• To know the share of each sector in the GDP. For example in 2000, the share of the tertiary sector was more than that of the agriculture sector and secondary sector in the GDP.
• By focusing on GDP and employment we can draw conclusions regarding the generation of new employment opportunities in various sectors and take necessary steps accordingly.
• We come to know employment conditions for workers such as in the unorganized sector and take necessary steps to improve their condition. So that the workers are not exploited.

(2) Focus should be laid on other issues such as conditions of work, profit motive, efficiency, public welfare, environmentally friendly.

• Conditions of work should be in the favour of workers.
• The employment should be regular and the employer should follow various laws such as Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act etc.
• The production must be for the welfare of the people who should not be exploited by raising prices or creating a scarcity of goods in the market. Thus, such issues must be examined while discussing the role of different sectors in the economy of the country.

Q9: How is the tertiary sector different from other sectors? Illustrate with few examples. Answer: The tertiary sector is different from other sectors as mentioned below :

• The activities of the tertiary sector help in the development of primary and secondary sectors.
• These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good, but they are an aid or support for the production process. For example, the transport system helps in taking goods from the factory to markets for the purpose of selling or storing in godowns.
• It provides telephones and other products for communication to the traders. Banks provide money to help production and trade.
• Thus transport, storage, communication etc. are not tertiary activities. On the other hand, primary sector forms the base for all products that we subsequently make. Minerals and ores are natural products which are converted into other forms by manufacturing. Sugar is made from sugarcane.

Q10: What do you understand by disguised unemployment? Explain with an example each from the urban and rural areas. Answer:  Disguised Unemployment is a kind of unemployment in which there are people who are visibly employed but are actually unemployed. This situation is also known as Hidden Unemployment. In such a situation more people are engaged in a work than required.

For example in rural areas, this type of unemployment is generally found in the agricultural sector like – in a family of 9 people all are engaged in the same agricultural plot. But if 4 people are withdrawn from it there will be no reduction in output. So, these 4 people are actually disguisedly employed.

In urban areas, this type of unemployment can be seen mostly in service sectors such as in a family all members are engaged in one petty shop or a small business which can be managed by less number of persons.

Q11: Distinguish between open unemployment and disguised unemployment. Open Unemployment – When a country’s labour force do not get opportunities fro adequate employment, this situation is called open unemployment. This type of unemployment is generally found in the industrial sector of our country. This is also found among the landless agricultural labourers in rural areas. Disguised Unemployment – This is a kind of unemployment in which there are people who are visibly employed but actually they don’t have full employment. In such a situation more people are engaged in a work than required. This type of unemployment is generally found in unorganized sector where either work is not constantly available or too many people are employed for the same work that does not require so many hands.

Q12: Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy. Do you agree/ Give reasons in support of your answer? Answer: “The tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy” is partially correct due to reasons as mentioned below :

The share of tertiary sector in employment has not increased in proportion to its increase in production. In 2000, the production in service sector rose by 11 times, whereas employment has risen less than three times. Therefore, still more than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector.

New services such as based on information technology have become important, but not all the services of the service sector are growing well. At one end are highly skilled and educated workers but on the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair Arsons, transport persons. These persons barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Such persons can not play any important role in the development of the Indian economy. It is this part of service sector that is not growing in importance.

Q13: Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are these? Answer: The service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are: (a) The people involved in the services that may directly help in the production of goods. For example, people involved in the transportation, storage, communication, finance etc. (b) The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods e.g. teachers, doctors, barbers, cobblers lawyers etc. They may be termed as ancillary workers means those who give services to the primary service providers.

Q14: Workers are exploited in the unorganized sector. Do you agree with this view.? Give reasons in support of your answer. Answer: Yes, workers are exploited in the unorganized sector. This would be clear from the following points:

• There is no fixed number of working hours. The workers normally work 10 – 12 hours without paid overtime.
• They do not get other allowances apart fro the daily wages.
• Government rules and regulations to protect the labourers are not followed there.
• There is no job security.
• Jobs are low paid the workers in this sector are generally illiterate, ignorant and unorganized. So they are not in a position to bargain or secure good wages.
• Being very poor they are always heavily in debt. So, they can be easily made to accept lower wages.

Q15: How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions? Answer: On the basis of employment conditions, the activities in the economy are classified into organized and unorganized sectors.

Organized Sector This sector covers those enterprises which are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations. For example, Reliance Industries Ltd., GAIL etc.

Unorganized Sector It includes those small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. Though there are rules and regulations but these are never followed here. For example, casual workers in construction, shops etc. In this sector there is no job security and the conditions of employment are also very tough.

Q16: Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sectors. Answer: The employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sectors are vastly different. The organised sector has companies registered with the government and hence, it offers job security, paid holidays, pensions, health and other benefits, fixed working hours and extra pay for overtime work. On the other hand, the unorganised sector is a host of opposites. There is no job security, no paid holidays or pensions on retirement, no benefits of provident fund or health insurance, unfixed working hours and no guarantee of safe work environment.

Q17: Explain the objective of implementing the NREGA 2005. Answer:

• The objective of implementing the NREGA 2005 i.e., National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 is to implement the right to work.
• The Act has to be implemented in 200 districts.
• Under this Act, all those who are able to, and are in need of work have been guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government.
• If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowance to the people.
• The types of work that would in future help to increase the production from land will be given preference under this Act.

Q18: Using examples from your area compare and contrast the activities and functions of private and public sectors. Answer: The activities and functions of private and public sectors in our area may be compared as mentioned below :

Q20: Give three examples of Public Sector activities and explain why the government has taken up them. Answer:  The examples are: Railways: The government has taken up it for the following reasons – 1. Only the government can invest large sums of money on the public project with long gestation period. 2. To ensure and provide transportation at cheap rate. NTPC: The government has taken up it to provide electricity at a lower rate than the actual cost of production. The aim is to protect and encourage the private sector especially small scale industries. AIIMS: To provide quality health services at reasonably cheap rate was the main purpose of the government to start this.

Q21: Explain how Public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation. Answer:  In the following ways Public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation:

• It promotes rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
• It creates employment opportunities.
• It generates financial resources for development.
• It is ensuring equality of income, wealth and thus, a balanced regional development.
• It encourages development of small, medium and cottage industries.
• It ensures easy availability of goods at moderate rates.
• Contributes to community development i.e. to the Human Development Index (HDI) via health and educational services.

Q22: The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on the following issues: wages, safety and health. Explain with examples? Answer: The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on the following issues: wages, safety and health. In the construction sector, labourers are employed on a daily basis. Hence, they have no job security. Here, wages too differ from time to time. Consequently, the government has set up a minimum wages act to protect such workers from economic exploitation.

The same problem exists for miners working in private mining companies. Their safety is secondary to the company’s profits, and as a result, many miners suffer grievous injuries (and many a times, even die) due to inadequate safety gear and norms. Governments of most nations have now laid down strict rules for private enterprises to ensure workers’ safety.

Most companies in the unorganised sector do not provide health insurance to their employees. Some of these might be involved in dangerous factory production that may harm a worker’s health in the long term. These workers need to be protected against the tyranny of the employer, and it is here that the government steps in.

Q23: A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-1998) was Rs 60,000 million. Out of this Rs 32,000 million was generated in the organised sector. Present this data as a table. What kind of ways should be thought of for generating more employment in the city? Answer: Ways to generate more employment in the city of Ahmedabad have to be provided by the government, especially in the unorganised sector. As the table shows, the organised sector’s earnings are much higher than that of the unorganised sector even though the latter employs almost 80% of the city workers. More companies need to be brought under the roof of the organised sector so that workers from the unorganised sector are attracted to jobs there, with higher and more secure wages. For this, the government must provide loans and aid to companies transferring from unorganised to organised sectors.

Multiple Choice Questions

Previous Years’ Questions 1. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of: [CBSE (CCE) 2011] (a) Employment conditions (b) The nature of economic activities (c) Number of workers employed (d) Ownership of enterprises

2. The value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year is called as: [CBSE (CCE) 2011] (a) Gross Domestic Product (b) Net Domestic Product (c) National Product (d) Production of Tertiary Sector

3. The service sector includes activities such as [CBSE(CCE)2011] (a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry (b) making sugar, gur and bricks (c) transport, communication and banking (d) None of these

4. Choose the correct meaning of organised sector [CBSE (CCE) 2011] (a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular. (b) It is outside the control of the government. (c) Jobs are not regular. (d) It provides low salaries.

NCERT Questions 5. Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in sector. (a) primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) information technology

6. GDP is the total value of ………….. produced during a particular year. (a) all goods and services (b) all final goods and services (c) all intermediate goods and services (d) all intermediate and final goods and services

7. In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003 is: (a) between 20 per cent to 30 per cent (b) between 30 per cent to 40 per cent (c) between 50 per cent to 60 per cent (d) 70 per cent

Additional Questions 8. Underemployment occurs when people (a) do not want to work (b) are working in a lazy manner (c) are working less than what they are capable of doing (d) are not paid for their work

9. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the (a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector (c) Primary sector (d) Organised sector

10. Natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing (a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) Unorganised sector

11. Which of the following is included in tertiary sector? (a) ATM booths (b) Call centres (c) Internet cafe (d) All of them

12. Only ………… are included to know the total production in each sector. (a) Final goods and services (b) Intermediate goods (c) Only goods (d) Only services

13. At the initial stages of development, ………………. was the most important sector of economic activity (a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) Organised sector

14. In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from secondary to ……………. in developed countries. (a) Primary sector (b) Organised sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) Unorganised sector

15. Mention the largest producing sector in 2003 in India ? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Unorganised sector

16. Name the sector which continues to be the largest employer even in the year 2000. (a) Secondary (b) Primary (c) Tertiary (d) Banking section

17. A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are optimally required. (a) Structural unemployment (b) Disguised unemployment (c) Cyclical unemployment (d) Seasonal unemployment

18. A study conducted by the planning commission estimates that the following number of jobs can be created in the education sector alone. (a) 20 lakhs (b) 15 lakhs (c) 18 lakhs (d) 25 lakhs

19. Out of 200 million children in the school going age group, how many are attending schools? (a) One – fourth (b) Half (c) Two – thirds (d) One – fifth

20. According to planning commission, if tourism as a sector is improved, every year we can give additional employment to people more than (a) 25 lakhs (b) 30 lakhs (c) 32 lakhs (d) 35 lakhs

21. Central government in India made a law, implementing the Right to Work in how many districts of India ? (a) 150 districts (b) 200 districts (c) 250 districts (d) 300 districts

22. Under NREGA 2005, how many days of work, in a year are guaranteed by the government? (a) 100 days (b) 120 days (c) 90 days (d) 99 days

23. Enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and people have assured work comes under (a) Primary sector (b) Organised sector (c) Unorganised sector (d) Tertiary sector

24. Percentage of people in the unorganised sector in tertiary sector is ………………….. (a) 67 % (b) 76 % (c) 51 % (d) 75 %

25. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of (i) Landless agricultural labourers (ii) Garment makers (iii) Street vendors (iv) Sharecroppers and artisans (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

26. Which of them does not generally find itself in the unorganised sector ? (a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled tribes (c) Rich families (d) Backward communities

27. Government owns most of the assets and provides all the.services (a) Private Sector (b) Public Sector (c) Organised Sector (d) Tertiary Sector

28. There are large number of activities like providing health and education which are the primary responsibility of (a) Primary sector (b) Private companies (c) Government (d) Secondary sector

Free Resources

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India

Ncert solutions for class 10 history chapter 2 nationalism in india social science.

Chapter 2 Nationalism in India Class 10 NCERT Solutions

Ncert solutions for class 10 history chapters:.

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Why ganhiji launched non-cooperation movement and how it started, what is inland emigration act of 1859, how civil disobedience movement started, contact form.

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Class 10 Unit 2 -Self Management Skills – II Question Answer

Part – a : unit 2 :- self management skills – ii 50+ question – answer.

Session 1: Stress Management

1. What do you mean by Self Management?

Answer: Managing oneself in order to achieve desired goals and targets is called self-management.

To practice Self Management, a person needs to deal with willpower, determination, and a positive outlook.

2. What a person needs to deal for practicing Self Management?

Answer: To practice Self Management, a person needs to deal with willpower, determination, and a positive outlook.

3. What is Stress?

Answer: Stress is our body and mind’s response and reaction to challenging or handling situations in our lives.

It is our body’s way of reacting and getting prepared to deal with a situation and pressure is created.

4. How many types of Stress?

Answer : There are two types of Stress : (a) Eustress and (b) distress

5. What is eustress?

Answer : Good or positive stress is known as Eustress. Eustress is identified by excitement, elation, and charging up of emotions.

Examples of Eustress: Promotion, Winning a Match, Passing an exam, Meeting an old friend, buying new possession, receiving a surprise gift, getting a new job, etc.

6. What is distress?

Answer : Negative types of stress are known as distress. It can be dangerous if not identified in time.

Examples of distress: Higher expectations at work, close deadlines, insecurity of job, internal team conflicts, lack of conflicts, etc.

7. What is Good stress?

Answer : Good stress refers to the limited quantity of stress that helps one keep focused and motivated to do something. For example, You have scored good marks in your exam. This stress is good because it motivates you to do more and planned study.

It is also known as eustress by psychologists. For example, riding a roller coaster in an adventure park, the deadline for assignment submission in approaching, going for an interview, etc.

8. What is Bad stress?

Answer: Bad stress refers is a negative form of stress and it hinders your progress. It is also known as distress or chronic stress.

Bad stress can affect body’s immune system and causes emotional distress.

Symptoms of bad stress are :- lack of sleep, heart problem, loss or gain of appetite, memory loss, etc.

9. What is the difference between eustress and distress?

Answer : Eustress is positive stress, also called Good stress. But distress is negative stress, also called Bad stress.

10. Why do you need to manage stress?

Answer: Because it will start taking a toll on one’s body.

11. What is the impact of unmanaged stress?

Answer: Unmanaged stress may affect the immune system, digestive system, and excretory systems of the body.

Unmanaged stress is a significant risk, and thus, one must always take timely actions to manage their stress levels whenever they feel that stress has become negative and overwhelming.

12. List some common symptoms of physical stress?

Answer: Headache, Muscular tension, Fatigue, Chest pain, Upset stomach, Disturbed sleep, and Low energy.

13. List some common symptoms of psychological stress?

Answer: Anxiety, Feeling demotivated, Lost of attention, Depression and frustration, Angry outbursts, Drug and alcohol abuse, Social withdrawal, Overreaction.

14. What are the benefits of Stress management? or

Why Stress management is so important?[Sumita Arora]

Answer: Benefits of stress management are –

• maintaining health
• improving mood
• boosting immune system
• improving productivity
• This leads to burst of physical strength, which is vital for reaching the goal
• Complete mental and physical engagement for task accomplishment
• Increases efficiency and effectiveness
• Prevents psychological disorders and behavioral problems

15. What are the different stress management techniques?

Answer: Stress management techniques are –

a) Physical exercise –

d) Meditation

e) Taking Break

f) Nature walks

g) Holidaying and Vacationing

16. Why students are facing stress?

Answer: Students may face stress due to

• Peer – pressure, Balancing academic life with social life, increased unrealistic wants, etc.
• the pressure of work, deadlines, exam pressure, parents’ expectation, own expectations, increased workload, etc.
• The financial problem, etc.

17. How students can manage stress? or

What are some stress management tips for students ?

Answer : Students can manage and control their stress levels by –

• Proper Time Management
• Physical exercise
• Act Smartly
• Spend a relaxing time
• Take a good diet
• Positive thinking

18. What foods should you consume when feeling stressed?

Answer: Warm drinks, whole grains, dark chocolates, fatty fish, milk, nuts, vitamin C-rich fruits, water, bananas, leafy greens, etc.

19. What foods should you avoid when feeling stressed?

Answer : Refined sugar, sugar foods, caffeine, junk food, cookies, , fast food, candies, etc.

20. What are Cortisol and Adrenaline?

Answer : Cortisol and Adrenaline are stress hormones, which are released from our body where there are increased stress levels.

21. Write the name of the feel-good hormones released by our body.

Answer : Endorphins (released in the brain), Dopamine, and Serotonin (released by the body)

22. How does stress affect working women?

Answer : Stress for working women is more. A working woman has so many stress like taking care of children, working at home, working at an office, and many more.

Balancing relations, friends and work causes a great deal of stress.

23. What do you mean by Internal Stress?

Answer : Stress occurs due to Anxiety, fear of financial loss, unrealistic or irrelevant expectations, worries related to future happening, etc., called Internal stress.

Internal stress is very dangerous, as it grows up inside and slowly.

24. What is the fight-flight-freeze response?

Answer : In emergency situations (earthquake, accident, or life-threatening situation), our nervous system instantly kicks into action

fight (face) – fight means face. Our nervous system instructs us to face situations.

flight (defense) – flight means defense of himself/herself from bad conditions.

freeze (surrender) – In freeze response, the body is unable to respond for a certain duration until the danger passes.

Information Technology / Informatics Practices / Computer Science

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Electronic Spreadsheet Question Answers | Class 10 IT 402 Unit 2 Spreadsheet Question Answers

Electronic Spreadsheet question answers have been given here in this post. Practice these Class 10 IT unit 2 Electronic Spreadsheet Question Answers to score best in your final exam.

Electronic Spreadsheet Question Answers

Define and Explain the usage of the following terms with Reference to OpenOffice Calc. (a) Consolidating data (b) Subtotals (c) Goal seek (d) Scenario (e) Solver

Answer: (a) Consolidating data Data Consolidation allows you to gather together your data from separate worksheets into a master worksheet. OR The Data Consolidation function takes data from a series of worksheets or workbooks and summarizes it into a single worksheet that you can update easily. Consolidate provides a graphical interface for copying data from one range of cells to another, then running one of a dozen functions on the data. During consolidation, the contents of cells from several sheets can be combined in one place.

(b) Subtotals SUBTOTAL: totals/add data arranged in an array—that is, a group of cells with labels for columns and/or rows. Using the Subtotals dialog, you can select arrays, and then choose a statistical function (sum, average, max, min) to apply to them. . For efficiency, one must choose up to three groups of arrays to which to apply a function.

( c) Goal seek Using the Goal Seek option under the Tools menu, you can discover what values will produce the result that you want. OR Goal seeking is a general term used to describe the process involved in figuring out your input value based on an already known output value. The process involves using a specific operator in a formula, which can be calculated using computer software. Example: Set Cell: It specifies the cell whose value will be changed to the desired value after the result of the Goal Seek operation. Example: Jack scored 25 out of 30 in English, 22 out of 30 in Maths. He wants to calculate the score in IT he needs to achieve 85 percent in aggregate. So here goal is set and according to it Jack will find one unknown variable IT marks.

(d) Scenario Scenarios are a tool to test “what-if” questions. Each scenario is named, and can be edited and formatted separately. When you print the spreadsheet, only the content of the currently active scenario is printed. A scenario is essentially a saved set of cell values for your calculations. You can easily switch between these sets using the Navigator or a drop-down list which can be shown beside the changing cells. For example, if you wanted to calculate the effect of different interest rates on an investment, you could add a scenario for each interest rate, and quickly view the results. Formulas that rely on the values changed by your scenario are updated when the scenario is opened. If all your sources of income used scenarios, you could efficiently build a complex model of your possible income.

(e) Solver The solver option under the Tools menu amounts to a more elaborate form of Goal Seek. The difference is that the Solver deals with equations with multiple unknown variables. It is specifically designed to minimize or maximize the result according to a set of rules that you define. Each of these rules sets up whether an argument in the formula should be greater than, lesser than, or equal to the value you enter. For example, you can set the constraint that one of the variables or cells must not be bigger than another variable, or no bigger than a given value. You can also define the constraint that one or more variables must be integers (values without decimals), or binary values (where only 0 and 1 are allowed). Once you have finished setting up the rules, you can adjust the argument and the results by clicking the Solve button.

Explain how to create a reference to (a) Other worksheets within the same workbook (b) worksheet of another workbook with keyboard and mouse. OR What are the two ways of referencing cells in other worksheets?

a) Other worksheets within the same workbook

• Click on the = icon next to the formula bar.

2. Now, click on the sheet tab for the sheet containing the cell to be referenced. (eg. Sheet2)

3. Click on cell F3 (where the balance is) in sheet2. The phrase ‘Sheet2’.F3 should appear in the formula bar. With the help of a keyboard, you have to type down the above formula in the formula bar.

b) Worksheet of another workbook

• Click the = icon next to the formula bar.

2. Switch to the other spreadsheet (the process to do this will vary depending on which

operating system you are using).

3. Select the sheet (Savings account or any) and then the reference cell (F3).

Creating The Reference With The Keyboard

Typing the reference is simple once you know the format the reference takes. Thereference has three parts to it:

• Path and file name

Looking at the figure above, you can see the general format for the reference is

=’file:///Path &File Name’#$SheetName.cell name.

Differentiate between relative and absolute hyperlinks.

An absolute hyperlink will stop working only if the target is moved. A relative hyperlink will stop working only if the source and target locations change relative to each other. Suppose, if you have two spreadsheets in the same folder linked to each other and you move the entire folder to a new location, a relative hyperlink will not break a link.

How can we rename a worksheet in Spreadsheet ?

There are three ways you can rename a worksheet, and the only difference between them is the way in which you start the renaming process. You can do any of the following:

• Double-click on one of the existing worksheet names.
• Right-click on an existing worksheet name, then choose Rename from the resulting Context menu.
• Select the worksheet you want to rename (click on the worksheet tab) and then select the Sheet option from the Format menu. This displays a submenu from which you should select the Rename option.

What is the advantage of sharing worksheet data?

• Speed up data entry
• Make things easier for collaboration purposes.

Explain features and use of Record changes.

Calc has the feature to track what data was changed when the change was made, who made the change, and in which cell the change has occurred. A colored border, with a dot in the upper left-hand corner, appears around a cell where changes were made. Other reviewers then quickly know which cells were edited. A deleted column or row is marked by a heavy-colored bar. Example: If you are the sponsor of a youth baseball team. The coach has submitted a budget to you for the season and you need to edit the costs and return them to her. You are concerned that if you just make the changes, then the coach won’t see the changes you made. You decide to use Calc with the record changes feature turned on so that the coach can easily see the changes you have made.

What is the purpose of adding comments?

Reviewers and authors can add their comments to explain their changes.

How can we add comments to the changes made?

To add a comment to a change:

1. Make the change to the spreadsheet.

2. Select the cell with the change.

3. Choose Edit > Changes > Comments. The dialog shown below appears. The automatically-added comment provided by Calc appears in the title bar of this dialog and cannot be edited. 4. Type your own comment and click OK.

Explain the feature of accepting or reject changes.

When you receive a worksheet back with changes, the beauty of the recording changes system becomes evident. Now, as the original author, you can step through each change and decide how to proceed. To begin this process:

1. Open the edited worksheet.

2. Select Edit > Changes > Accept or Reject. The dialog shown below opens.

3. Calc steps through the changes one at a time. You can choose to accept or reject each change as you go through it.  or you can also select Accept all and reject all if you want to do so.

What are Macros? How can we record a Macro?

Macros help in saving time in cases when the same set of tasks are to be done repeatedly like formatting or applying a similar formula in a similar range of data. It can be used to name and record a set of actions.

Procedure to record a macro:

• before you do any action click on tools->macro->record macro
• now perform the action you want to repeat
• click on stop recording. now save macro by giving name to macro

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Class 10 IT PYQs Ebook

Class 10 IT PYQs E-Book

10 Class Science Assignment Solution 2022 – 2nd Week

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SSC Class 10 Assignment 2022 2nd Week Answer (English & BGS)

Class 10 Assignment 2nd Week 2021 of exam 2022 has been published by the Authority. Today DSHE authority released this SSC Assignment 2021 2nd week for the 2022 exam. For this second week, the Education authority includes English, Bangladesh, and Global Studies (BGS) & Science assignments in the class ten assignment. So all the SSC Class 10 students need to complete this week’s assignment in time. To complete this assignment, we here going to publish the Class 10 assignment 2nd week answer 2021. If you want to collect this SSC 2022 assignment 2nd week solution PDF file then read this full post and check the download link. Because your Assignment class 10 2021 is available here.

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Class 10 Assignment 2021 2nd Week

You may already completed your previous week’s Class 10 assignment. And waiting for the second week’s assignment. The good news for you is that the DSHE authority published Class 10 2nd week assignment 2021 for the 2022 exam. And for this new week, they added English & BGS assignments. Now if you are a student of this HSC 10th class then you must know all information about this week’s assignment. And this is why we are coming and posted this post about your SSC 2022 assignment in 2021 second week question along with the answer.

In this post, we are going to discuss all this new week’s SSC assignment 2021. We also will provide you with the answer to this English & BGS assignment. So that one can make their SSC assignment easily by reading this post. You need to read this post till the end. And see the question of this assignment and also the answer which is given here for you to collect.

SSC 2022 Assignment 2nd Week

SSC is an abbreviate name for the Secondary School Certificate exam in our country. This is very similar to Class 10. Moreover, class 10 students give this SSC exam after this class. Due to Covid-19, all the educational institute in our country is closed. As a result, students cant continue their studies at home and not completed their syllabus. For the 2022 SSC exam, the Education authority gives SSC Short syllabus . And this time authority gives SSC students the assignment which is based on this short syllabus. A total of 25 weeks’ assignments will be published. Already SSC 2022 1st & 2nd week assignment has been published by the DSHE authority.

Now all the students need to complete this SSC 2022 2nd week assignment in time. They will have 7 days to complete each week’s assignment. For this second week, they include English & BGS assignments to do. How students will prepare this assignment, how they find the best answer to this assignment is discussed here by us. Also, we publish the correct assignment answer for SSC students.

Class 10 Assignment 2nd Week Answer

So in the above, we discussed the Class 10 second week assignment subject and other things. Now we will discuss the Class 10 2nd week assignment answer 2021 of the exam 2022. As DSHE authority gives SSC 2022 assignment of English & BGS. Now students will search for the answer to this both subject assignments. So for their, we here going to publish the English & BGS 2nd week assignment answer PDF, picture version to download.

Anyone can come here and collect their SSC Class 10 assignment solution of English & Bangladesh and Global Studies. This is totally free from us. You don’t need to pay any money for this. Most of the class 10 students are afraid of a lot of this English subject as well as BGS subject. So for their convenience, we uploaded the best answer. You just need to go below and click on the answer download link to collect the answer.

Check-  SSC Assignment 2021 Batch 2022 Math Bangla 1st Week Answer

Class 10 english 2nd week assignment answer.

So you are here to collect your Class 10 English 2nd week assignment answer 2021 of exam 2022. As authority gives this English 1st paper assignment to the HSC class 10 students to complete for this week. In the above, we already say that English is a very hard subject for the students. Because most of the students are afraid of this subject a lot. So for completing this assignment they looking for the answer. For them, we here added the HSC Class 10 English assignment answer. If you want to download this answer pdf then click on the below link we are given.

Click Here To Download Solution

We hope from the above you have already collected your English assignment solution. Now following this answer you can easily prepare your English assignment. Remember you need to complete this week’s assignment in 7 days. So come here and collect assignment solutions from our website.

Class 10 BGS 2nd Week Assignment Answer

Now you also have to collect your Class 10 BGS assignment 2nd week answer 2021 of exam 2022. As authority also gives this assignment to the SSC students. So if you are a student of this SSC Class 10 then come here and collect Bangladesh & Global Studies assignment answer pdf and picture version. For you, we here uploaded the BGS assignment solution. So go below and click on the below link to collect answers to this SSC 2022 assignment.

Click To Download Solution

We want to say that you should prepare your SSC assignment 2021 for the 2022 exam on your own. This will help you to gather more experience about this assignment . You will also get benefited in the future. For that, you need to read your textbook very well. But here our answer is always for you to download.

Class 10 Science 2nd Week Assignment Answer

Science assignment is also given by the authority for the class ten 2nd week assignment 2021. This is the first time students need to prepare for this Science (biggan) assignment. Most of the students of this class feel that science is a very hard subject. When it comes to an assignment, it is more difficult for the students to do assignment. So they always want to collect answers to this and complete their assignment. Here we come up with Science 2nd week solution with a PDF image version. One can easily able to download this answer for their science subject.

Click Here to Download Answer

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IT 402 Digital Documentation Class 10 Questions and Answers

Teachers and Examiners collaborated to create the Digital Documentation Class 10 Questions and Answers . All the important Questions and Answers and taken from the NCERT Textbook Information Technology ( 402 ).

Very Important Subjective Questions from Textbook

Session 1: create and apply styles in the document, 1. what are styles . what are the advantages of using styles..

Answer – Styles are pre-defined formatting attributes in digital document processing that can be used to apply consistent formatting to text and other elements. The advantages of using styles include –

• Consistency throughout the document
• Efficiency in formatting the document
• Flexibility in making changes to the document
• Improved accessibility for users with assistive technologies.

Digital Documentation Class 10 Questions and Answers

2. Give any four styles supported by OpenOffice.org

Answer – OpenOffice.org supports various styles, including:

• Paragraph Styles: Used to format paragraphs, including indentation, line spacing, and font size.
• Character Styles: Used to format individual characters, including font type, size, color, and style.
• Page Styles: Used to format the overall appearance of a page, including margins, headers, and footers.
• List Styles: Used to format bulleted or numbered lists, including the type of bullet or number, indentation, and spacing.

3. What is the best way to load styles from a template or another document?

Answer – You can copy styles by loading them from a template or another document, for example:

• Open the document into which you wish to paste the styles.
• In the Styles and Formatting window, click on Load Styles after long-clicking on the arrow next to the New Style from Selection symbol.
• Locate and choose the template you wish to copy styles from in the Load Styles window
• Choose the style categories you want to copy. If you want the copied styles to overwrite any styles with the same names in the document you’re putting them into, select Overwrite.
• To copy styles from another document, click the From File button to bring up a box where you may choose the required file.

4. How can you modify the style?

Answer – Styles can be changed in a variety of ways in OpenOffice.org. • Load or copy styles from another document or template • Update a style from a selection

5. How can we create our own styles?

Answer – There are two different ways to create a style –

• Creating a new style from a selection – You can copy a new style from an existing style. This new style will only be applied to this document and will not be saved in the template.
• Dragging And Dropping To Create A Style – You can drag and drop a text selection into the Styles and Formatting window to create a new style.

Session 2: Insert and use images

6. explain any five graphic filters..

Answer – The following are four graphic filters: a. Invert – Changing the color in the color image, and giving brightness in grayscale image. b. Solarization – Increasing the effects of excessive light in a photograph. c. Posterize – Reduces the number of colours in a picture to make it look like a painting. d. Charcoal – The image is displayed as a charcoal sketch. e. Mosaic – Combines groupings of pixels into a single colour area.

7. Explain Image Cropping

Answer – Image cropping is the process of removing unwanted parts of an image by selecting and keeping a specific portion of the image while discarding the rest. Method for cropping image are right-click the image and choose Picture from the pop-up menu to begin cropping it. Select the Crop page in the Picture dialogue box.

The following parameters can be controlled on the Crop page:

Keep scale / Keep image size –

• When Keep scale is chosen (the default), cropping the image has no effect on the image’s scale.
• Cropping creates enlargement (for positive cropping values), shrinking (for negative cropping values), or distortion of the image when Keep image size is selected, so the image size remains constant.

Left, Right, Top, and Bottom –

You can crop the image using the dialog box, you can enter left, right, top and bottom margins to crop the image.

• Keep scale – using this option you can crop the image without changing the size of the image.
• Keep image size – Without changing the height and width of the image you can crop the image using keep image size.

8. List any three methods of inserting images in a text document.

Answer – The three methods for inserting images in digital documents are –

• Drag and Drop
• Inserting image from clipboard
• Insert image from Scanner

9. What do you understand by the terms: a. Text Wrapping b. Anchoring

Answer – a. Text Wrapping – Text wrapping describes the relationship between graphics and the surrounding text, which may wrap around the graphic on one or both sides, be overprinted behind or in front of the graphic, or be overprinted behind or in front of the graphic. b. Anchoring – The graphics’ reference point is referred to as IT. This point could represent the object’s location on the page or in the frame. An anchor point is always present in an image.

Session 3: Create and use template

10. what are templates what are the advantages of using templates.

Answer – A template is a type of document that you can use to make a similar type of document. Templates can contain text, graphics, style, design.

Advantage of template are – a. Document creation is made easier with templates. b. It save time to giving style in document c. The use of templates helps to keep the audience’s interest.

11. What is the difference between styles and templates?

Answer – a. Style – Styles ensure that your formatting is consistent throughout a document.

b. Template – Templates allow you to reuse text and maintain a consistent look and feel across many projects.

12. Explain different ways of creating a template.

Answer – There are two ways to create templates in a document.

Creating a template from a document – 1. Create or edit a new or existing document of the type you wish to use as a template. 2. Fill in the blanks with the content and styles you desire. 3. Select File > Templates > Save from the main menu.

Creating a template using a wizard – Wizards can be used to construct letter, fax, agenda, presentation, and Web page templates. The Fax Wizard, for example, walks you through the following options: 1. Fax machine type (business or personal) 2. Document components such as the date, topic line (for business faxes), salutation, and closing 3. Information about the sender and receiver options (business fax) 4. Inclusion of text in the footer (business fax)

Session 4: Create and customize table of contents

13. what do you mean by table of content.

Answer – The table of contents tool in Writer allows you to create an automated table of contents from your document’s headings.

Many of the elements are used in table of content –

a. E# – It indicate chapter number b. E – It represents the entry text c. T – It represents tab stop d. LS – It represents start of a hyperlink e. LE – It represents End of a hyperlink

Session 5: Implement Mail Merge

14. explain mail merge..

Answer – A mail merge is a method of personalizing a message you’ve written and sending it to a large group of people, giving the impression that you prepared the letter specifically for them.

15. What are the advantages of Mail Merge?

Answer – Advantages of mail merge are – a. It’s simple to send the same mail to a big group of recipients using the Mail Merge tool. b. We don’t have to type each recipient’s name separately in each letter when we use Mail Merge. c. It’s one of the most efficient ways to mass-produce hundreds of personalized letters in a short amount of time. d. It is simple to amend the letter because any change made in the main letter will be reflected in all other recipients’ letters.

16. Give examples of databases in which the Data Source can be created.

Answer – Any database that supports Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) can be utilized as a data source. They can also be made in spreadsheets using Excel, or other similar software. For example – a. Spreadsheet b. Text file c. CSV file d. OpenOffice base or Access

Extra Questions from Textbook

Q. explain the concept of styles in digital documents and how they are useful for formatting text and paragraphs..

Answer – Styles in digital documents are a useful feature that enables users to apply a predefined set of formatting options to text and paragraphs in a single click. A style can encompass font size, typeface, color, paragraph spacing, alignment, and other formatting options. Consistent use of styles throughout a document can help ensure a consistent and polished appearance, enhance readability, and save time by avoiding manual formatting changes. Overall, styles are a powerful tool that can significantly improve the efficiency and effectiveness of digital document processing.

Q. How can styles be used to create a table of contents in a digital document?

Answer – To create a table of contents in a digital document, styles can be utilized by assigning particular styles to headings and subheadings throughout the document. By applying the “Heading 1” style to primary section headings and the “Heading 2” style to subheadings, users can generate an automatic table of contents that lists all of the document’s sections and subsections in a structured and organized manner.

This saves time and effort since users don’t have to manually create a table of contents, and it also ensures that the document is consistent and easy to navigate for the reader. In short, using styles to create a table of contents is a powerful feature of digital documents that improves the overall readability and usability of the document.

Q. How can the use of styles help to improve the accessibility of a digital document?

Answer – Styles are an effective means of enhancing the accessibility of digital documents as they provide a consistent structure and formatting that is easy for users with visual impairments to navigate. By utilizing styles to define headings and subheadings, document creators can establish a clear hierarchy of information that can be interpreted effectively by screen readers.

This results in a document that is more user-friendly and inclusive, as it enables individuals with visual impairments to easily access and understand the content. Ultimately, incorporating styles into digital documents can have a positive impact on the overall accessibility and usability of the document, which is a crucial consideration in today’s increasingly diverse and inclusive society.

Q. How can the use of styles improve the efficiency of document creation and editing?

Answer – Styles can enhance the efficiency of document creation and editing by enabling users to quickly and easily apply formatting options to text and paragraphs. By defining a set of styles that reflect the formatting options commonly used in the document, users can swiftly apply those styles to text and paragraphs with a single click, streamlining the process and saving time.

This feature allows for consistency in formatting, reduces the possibility of errors, and improves the overall productivity of document creation and editing. In summary, using styles is a powerful tool that significantly enhances the efficiency of digital document processing.

Q. How can styles be used to ensure consistency in a collaborative digital document?

Answer – Using styles in a collaborative digital document can ensure consistency by defining a set of agreed-upon formatting options. This allows all collaborators to use the same styles throughout the document, resulting in a consistent appearance and better readability.

Q. How can styles be used to format text or paragraphs in a way that reflects the document’s purpose or audience?

Answer – Users can use styles to ensure that the digital document effectively communicates its message by applying styles that reflect its purpose or target audience. Furthermore, they can modify existing styles or create new ones to satisfy the document’s unique requirements. This approach results in a more readable and engaging document that is tailored to its intended purpose.

Q. What is a table of contents in a digital document, and how can it benefit the reader?

Answer – A table of contents in a digital document is a list of the document’s sections or chapters with corresponding page numbers or hyperlinks. It provides an overview of the document’s structure and helps the reader navigate the document quickly and easily. By using a table of contents, the reader can locate specific sections of the document without having to manually search for them, saving time and improving the reading experience.

Q. How can a table of contents be created and formatted in a digital document?

Answer – To create and format a table of contents in a digital document, users can follow these steps:

• Assign unique heading styles to each section or chapter of the document.
• Insert a table of contents using the appropriate option from the menu or toolbar.
• Customize the table of contents by choosing the desired style and formatting options to match the document’s design and layout.
• Update the table of contents whenever changes are made to the document’s structure or content to ensure its accuracy and usefulness to the reader.

Q. What are some best practices for creating a table of contents in a digital document?

Answer – When creating a table of contents in a digital document, it is important to use descriptive and accurate section or chapter headings, update the table of contents as changes are made to the document, use accurate hyperlinks or page numbers, customize the formatting to match the document’s design, and test the table of contents to ensure it is user-friendly and easy to navigate.

Q. How can the use of a table of contents benefit the author of a digital document?

Answer – Using a table of contents can be advantageous for the writer of a digital document in various ways. By presenting a structured and well-organized summary of the document’s content, the writer can ensure that the document is easily comprehensible and coherent. Consequently, this can save time and minimize the possibility of mistakes that may arise when the reader has to search for particular sections or chapters manually.

Reference Textbook

The above Digital Documentation Class 10 Notes PDF was created using the NCERT Book and Study Material accessible on the CBSE ACADEMIC as a reference.

Your valuable Feedback

Hi Students, Thank you for taking the time to reading Digital Documentation Class 10 Important Questions and Answers . Please take a few moments and leave your thoughts in the comment box below.

Disclaimer – 100% of the questions are taken from the CBSE textbook digital documentation advanced class 10 notes , and our team has tried to collect all the correct Question and Answer from the textbook . If you found any suggestion or any error please contact us [email protected].

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